Free SQE1 Practice Questions: Test Your Legal Knowledge

Go SQE1 Team24 February 202614 min read

Test paper and pencil on a desk — Photo by Andy Barbour on Pexels

Introduction

Practice questions are the single most effective way to prepare for SQE1. Research across seven meta-analyses and 48,000+ learners confirms that answering practice questions produces dramatically better retention than passive study. Reading textbooks and attending lectures builds knowledge, but answering exam-style questions under realistic conditions is what transforms that knowledge into exam readiness.

This post provides free sample questions from across the SQE1 syllabus, covering both FLK1 and FLK2 subject areas. Each question follows the single best answer format used in the real exam — five options, one correct answer. Every question includes a detailed explanation so you can understand the reasoning, not just the correct option.

FLK1 Questions

Contract Law

Question 1: A buyer agrees to purchase a painting from a seller for 500 pounds. The contract is formed by email exchange. Before delivery, the painting is accidentally destroyed by a fire at the seller's premises that was not caused by either party. Neither party had insured the painting.

Which of the following best describes the legal position?

A) The buyer must still pay the purchase price because the contract is binding.
B) The contract is voidable at the buyer's option under the doctrine of undue influence.
C) The contract is frustrated and both parties are discharged from their obligations.
D) The seller is liable in negligence for failing to protect the painting.
E) The buyer can claim specific performance to compel delivery.

Answer: C — Under the doctrine of frustration, where a supervening event occurs after the contract is formed that renders performance impossible, illegal, or radically different from what was contemplated, both parties are discharged from future obligations. The accidental destruction of a specific, identified item before delivery frustrates the contract. The Law Reform (Frustrated Contracts) Act 1943 governs the financial consequences, allowing recovery of money paid and compensation for benefits conferred.

Tort Law

Question 2: A homeowner hires a plumber to fix a leaking pipe. While working at the property, the plumber negligently damages the homeowner's kitchen floor. The homeowner wishes to bring a claim.

Against whom should the homeowner bring a claim, and on what basis?

A) Against the plumber personally in negligence, because the plumber is an independent contractor.
B) Against the plumber's employer under the principle of vicarious liability, because the plumber was acting in the course of employment.
C) Against the plumber under the Consumer Rights Act 2015 only.
D) The homeowner has no claim because they consented to the plumber entering the property.
E) Against the plumber under occupiers' liability, because the plumber was a visitor on the premises.

Answer: A — A self-employed plumber hired to carry out work is an independent contractor, not an employee. The homeowner's claim lies directly against the plumber in the tort of negligence. The plumber owes a duty of care, the damage to the floor is a foreseeable consequence of careless work, and the claim is for property damage. Vicarious liability would only apply if the plumber were an employee. The homeowner consented to entry, but consent to presence does not amount to consent to negligent damage (volenti non fit injuria would not apply here).

Business Law and Practice

Question 3: A private limited company has two directors and one shareholder who is not a director. The directors wish to issue new shares to a third party investor. The company's articles of association adopt the Model Articles for private companies limited by shares without modification.

What approval is required for the allotment of new shares?

A) The directors may allot shares without any additional approval.
B) The directors require ordinary resolution of the shareholders under section 551 of the Companies Act 2006.
C) The directors require a special resolution of the shareholders.
D) Only the company secretary may authorise the allotment of shares.
E) The directors require unanimous written consent of all existing shareholders.

Answer: B — Under section 551 of the Companies Act 2006, directors of a company with more than one class of shares, or where the articles do not grant authority, require authorisation by ordinary resolution of the shareholders to allot shares. Even under the Model Articles, unless the company has only one class of shares and the allotment does not exceed the authorised amount, director authority under section 550 is limited. Here, with existing shareholders whose interests may be diluted, an ordinary resolution under section 551 is the correct requirement. Additionally, existing shareholders have statutory pre-emption rights under section 561 unless disapplied.

Dispute Resolution

Question 4: A claimant issues proceedings in the County Court seeking damages of 8,000 pounds for breach of contract. The defendant files a defence denying liability.

To which track is the court most likely to allocate this case?

A) The small claims track
B) The fast track
C) The multi-track
D) The intermediate track
E) The case will not be allocated to a track because the amount is too low

Answer: A — Under the Civil Procedure Rules, the small claims track is the normal track for claims with a financial value of not more than 10,000 pounds (except for personal injury claims over 1,000 pounds and housing disrepair claims over 1,000 pounds). A straightforward breach of contract claim for 8,000 pounds falls within the small claims track. The fast track is for claims between 10,000 and 25,000 pounds, and the multi-track is for claims exceeding 25,000 pounds or of particular complexity.

Constitutional and Administrative Law

Question 5: A local authority refuses planning permission for a residential development. The developer believes the decision was irrational because the authority failed to consider a material planning consideration that was clearly relevant.

What is the most appropriate legal remedy for the developer to pursue?

A) An appeal to the Crown Court against the planning decision.
B) A claim for judicial review in the Administrative Court on the ground of illegality.
C) A private prosecution against the local authority for malfeasance in public office.
D) An action in the tort of negligence against the local authority.
E) An appeal to the First-tier Tribunal (Tax Chamber).

Answer: B — Failure to take into account a relevant consideration is a ground of judicial review falling under the head of illegality (established in Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service [1985], the GCHQ case). The appropriate remedy is to apply for judicial review in the Administrative Court, seeking to quash the decision. While there is also a statutory planning appeal route to the Planning Inspectorate under the Town and Country Planning Act 1990, judicial review is the correct answer here because the challenge is based on the legality of the decision-making process rather than the merits of the planning decision.

FLK2 Questions

Property Practice

Question 6: A buyer is purchasing a freehold residential property. The property is registered at HM Land Registry with absolute title. The buyer's solicitor carries out the usual pre-completion searches and discovers that a restriction has been entered on the register preventing any disposition without the consent of a named third party.

What should the buyer's solicitor advise?

A) The restriction can be ignored because it does not affect a buyer for value.
B) The buyer should proceed to completion and challenge the restriction afterwards.
C) The buyer should not complete until the restriction is either removed or the required consent is obtained.
D) The restriction automatically expires after 12 months and the buyer should wait.
E) The buyer should apply to the Land Registry to upgrade the title class.

Answer: C — A restriction on the register under section 40 of the Land Registration Act 2002 prevents the registration of a specified disposition unless the terms of the restriction are complied with. If the buyer completes without the required consent, the Land Registry will not register the transfer. The buyer's solicitor must advise that completion should not take place until the restriction is removed (by application to the Land Registry with the consent of the person who entered it) or the required consent is obtained. Proceeding without addressing the restriction would leave the buyer with an unregisterable transfer.

Criminal Law and Practice

Question 7: A defendant is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm (ABH) contrary to section 47 of the Offences Against the Person Act 1861. The prosecution alleges that the defendant punched the victim, breaking the victim's nose. The defendant claims he acted in self-defence because the victim had raised a fist and was about to strike him.

Which of the following best states the legal position regarding the burden of proof for self-defence?

A) The defendant bears the legal burden of proving self-defence on the balance of probabilities.
B) The defendant bears the evidential burden of raising self-defence, and the prosecution must then disprove it beyond reasonable doubt.
C) The prosecution bears both the evidential and legal burden of disproving self-defence.
D) Self-defence is not available as a defence to a charge under section 47.
E) The defendant must prove that the force used was reasonable on the balance of probabilities.

Answer: B — Self-defence is a common law defence (supplemented by section 76 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008). The defendant bears the evidential burden of raising the defence — meaning there must be sufficient evidence to put the issue before the jury or magistrates. Once the issue is raised, the prosecution bears the legal burden of disproving self-defence beyond reasonable doubt. The jury must consider whether the defendant genuinely believed it was necessary to use force, and whether the force used was reasonable in the circumstances as the defendant believed them to be.

Wills and the Administration of Estates

Question 8: A testator executes a will leaving her entire estate to her husband. The will is properly executed in accordance with section 9 of the Wills Act 1837. Three years later, the testator and her husband divorce by decree absolute. The testator dies without having made a new will.

What is the effect of the divorce on the will?

A) The will is entirely revoked by the divorce.
B) The will remains valid in its entirety and the ex-husband inherits the whole estate.
C) The gift to the ex-husband lapses and the estate passes under the intestacy rules as if the ex-husband had predeceased the testator.
D) The gift to the ex-husband is suspended until the testator remarries.
E) The will is valid but the ex-husband is only entitled to the personal chattels.

Answer: C — Under section 18A of the Wills Act 1837 (as amended by the Administration of Justice Act 1982), where a testator's marriage or civil partnership is dissolved or annulled by decree absolute, any gift to the former spouse or civil partner lapses. The will is read as if the former spouse had predeceased the testator. The will itself is not revoked — only the provisions relating to the former spouse are affected. The residuary estate therefore passes under the intestacy rules (or to any substitutional beneficiary if one is named).

Land Law

Question 9: A freeholder grants a 10-year lease to a tenant. The lease contains a covenant by the tenant not to use the property for any purpose other than as a private dwelling. The tenant opens a hairdressing salon from the ground floor of the property.

The freeholder wishes to enforce the covenant. Which of the following is correct?

A) The covenant is unenforceable because it is a negative covenant in a lease.
B) The freeholder can forfeit the lease, provided the lease contains a forfeiture clause and the correct statutory procedure is followed.
C) The freeholder's only remedy is damages; forfeiture is not available for breach of a user covenant.
D) The covenant is unenforceable because it constitutes an unreasonable restraint of trade.
E) The freeholder must wait until the lease expires to take any action.

Answer: B — A breach of a user covenant in a lease entitles the landlord to forfeit the lease, provided two conditions are met: the lease must contain a forfeiture clause (a right of re-entry), and the landlord must follow the statutory procedure under section 146 of the Law of Property Act 1925. This requires the landlord to serve a section 146 notice specifying the breach, requiring remedy if it is capable of remedy, and requiring compensation. The tenant has the right to apply to the court for relief from forfeiture. Covenants in leases (both positive and negative) are enforceable between landlord and tenant due to privity of estate.

Trusts

Question 10: A settlor transfers 50,000 pounds to a trustee "on trust for my children in equal shares". The settlor has three children: Alice, Ben, and Clara. The trustee invests the entire fund in shares in a single speculative company. The value of the shares falls by 60 per cent.

Which of the following best describes the trustee's liability?

A) The trustee is not liable because the investment was made in good faith.
B) The trustee is liable for breach of the duty of care under section 1 of the Trustee Act 2000 and the duty to diversify investments under section 4.
C) The trustee is liable only if the beneficiaries can prove the trustee acted dishonestly.
D) The trustee is liable only to the extent that the loss exceeds 10 per cent of the fund value.
E) The trustee has no liability because the beneficiaries consented to the investment by failing to object.

Answer: B — Under the Trustee Act 2000, a trustee exercising investment powers must exercise the standard investment criteria set out in section 4, which include the need for diversification of investments (so far as is appropriate to the circumstances of the trust) and the suitability of the proposed investment. Investing an entire trust fund in a single speculative company is a clear failure to diversify and likely a breach of the duty of care under section 1. The trustee is personally liable to restore the trust fund to the position it would have been in had the breach not occurred. Good faith does not excuse a failure to meet the statutory standard of care.

How to Get the Most from Practice Questions

These sample questions give you a taste of what SQE1 involves, but they represent a tiny fraction of the syllabus. To prepare effectively, you need access to hundreds of questions across every subject area.

Here are some tips for making the most of your practice:

Track your scores by subject. Do not just note whether you got a question right or wrong. Record which subject area each question covers and look for patterns in your weaknesses. If you consistently struggle with questions on land law or trusts, that tells you exactly where to focus your revision.

Review every incorrect answer thoroughly. When you get a question wrong, take the time to understand why. Was it a knowledge gap, a misreading of the question, or a failure to apply the correct legal test? Each type of mistake requires a different corrective action.

Practise under timed conditions. Once you are comfortable with the material, attempt questions within the approximately 1 minute 47 seconds per question time limit that mirrors the real exam. This builds the pace and decision-making speed you need on exam day.

Do not memorise questions. The real exam will present familiar legal principles in unfamiliar factual scenarios. Focus on understanding the law behind each answer so you can apply it to any question, not just the ones you have seen before.

Space your practice over time. Practising a few questions every day is far more effective than doing hundreds in a single sitting. Regular, spaced practice builds long-term retention.

Start Practising Now

The best time to start practising SQE1 questions is today. Whether you are months away from your exam or just beginning your preparation, regular practice is the single most effective thing you can do to improve your chances of passing.

Sign up for free access to our SQE1 practice question bank and begin building the legal knowledge and exam skills you need to qualify as a solicitor.